English speakers often use the word “hope” to express speculative desires: “I hope that I get the job,” or “I hope we win this game.” In these contexts, we invoke “hope” as we close our eyes, cross our fingers, and wait for the best possible conclusion to an unsure situation, but this is not what the Bible means when it speaks of hope. In Hebrew, “hope” (תקוה/מקוה) is associated with God, so that the term expresses confidence, not in a future outcome, but in a present divine strength.
According to the Psalms, hope is decisive because it comes from God: “Only for God does my life [wait] silently, for from him comes my hope (תקותי; tiqvati). He alone is my rock and my salvation, my fortress; I shall not be shaken” (Ps 62:5-6). The psalmist is already certain of his deliverance since God is the one in whom he puts his “hope.”
The Hebrew word for “hope” is the same as the word for a “pooling” or “gathering together” of waters (מקוה; miqveh). The Bible uses mikveh when God gathers together the waters at creation: “God called the dry ground ‘Land,’ and the gathering (מקוה; miqveh) of waters (מים; mayim) he called ‘Seas’” (Gen 1:10). Jeremiah connects this gathering of waters with his hope in God: “Lord, the hope (מקוה; miqveh) of Israel, all who forsake you shall be put to shame… for they have forsaken the Lord, the fountain of living waters (מים; mayim)” (Jer 17:13). The hope that Jeremiah has in God recalls God’s strength as the Creator: just as surely as God gathered the waters in the past, Jeremiah describes God as his present hope and living water. In biblical parlance, “hope” is not an abstract wish, but rather a complete assurance in God’s strength to sustain all things.
Hope, then is "a surety based on prior performance". That's right, Ken. Hope is a surety based on God's prior performance.
Thank you! I have always wanted there to be some good teaching to the Body of Christ about this word. Our modern context always positions the practitioner of hope in speculativeness and uncertainty. I have long realized now, however, that in the context of the breadth of G d‘s Word, it must have the more powerful context of having CONFIDENCE in G d. Thanks, Remi. We appreciate your input. We are very happy that you’ve joined our discussion forum. Would you believe that these articles are only a taste of what Israel Bible Center has to offer? We also provide comprehensive teaching on a variety of biblical, historical, and cultural topics. You might begin with The Jewish Gospel of Matthew or The Hebrew Psalms: How To Worship God. You’ll be amazed at the Jewish world that awaits you. Don’t delay another minute: enroll now!
The verb qavah means "to bind together" - in the meaning of the COMMITMENT. And the word "tiqvah" means hope through the "binding oneself" to YHVH. Without this "binding oneself" to YHVH in the COVENANT there is NO HOPE !!! So the word HOPE=TIQVAH is ONLY through the COMMITMENT in the COVENANT. For instance Isaiah 40:31 says - "But those BINDING themselves with YHVH will slip out in firmness (koach)...." And the word "miqveh" in Genesis 1:10 means literally "...binding of waters..." - because in the verse 9 it is written - "And elohiym spoke: Waters be bound together under..." There's certainly a covenantal element to the concept, John. Pastor John & Dr Nicholas, thank you for unbundling hope in such a deep but simple manner. Quite profound & am really empowered. Shalom
A few days ago I asked about ghosts; whether the Jews believed in ghosts in OT or NT. I discovered through Jewish Mysticism That they indeed did believe in Ghosts, but not all. There were at least two sects that believed in the OT. In the NT era there also were those who believed, and there are two very clear instances in the scriptures. When Jesus came to the Apostles walking on the water. And the time when an angel helped (Peter?) escape. There was also recorded in Mysticism that it was believed that demons inhabited the desolate areas. The concept of "ghostlike" figures can be found in the OT (cf. 1 Sam 28:13; Isa 29:4). Whether or not the ancient Israelites conceived of these figures in the same way that we think of "ghosts" today is another question. Jewish mysticism as a interpretive framework, as expressed in things like the Hekhalot literature and Kabbalah, far postdates the OT & NT, so it's best to go to Scripture to find the root of Peter's experience before we move too quickly to Jewish mysticism.
How do we differentiate between the types of "hate" mentioned in primarily the OT? Just like different types of love, there must be different types of hate. I don't have any hebrew documents to compare the different instances where hate is used. When Jesus was on the cross he said as he was dying, My God, My God Why hast thou forsaken me? The same words are in Psalm 22. I am having trouble understanding the meaning and what's really going on with the statement. Can you shed some light on it? IBC offers a whole course on the Psalms, which includes an analysis of Ps 22 and Jesus' use of it -- perhaps you'd like to enroll. Wesley. It is my understanding that when Jesus or Paul et al quote something from the Torah we must read the entire passage to get the full meaning. For Ps 22 the meaning, why Jesus said this, is very clear as you read and finish the entire passage.
When Jesus saw the disciples returning from a night of fishing empty handed he told them to cast their net on the other side of the road. Was this an indicator that after going to the Jews first with the gospel they should cast their net on the gentiles - as fishers of men.. Good question. I wouldn't read too much into the fishing episode in John 21 -- especially since Jesus and the disciples end up eating the fish (21:9-13), which would mean that they are eating Gentiles (!). More, the "fishers of human beings" line is in Mark & Matthew (Mk 1:17; Matt 4:19), but not in Luke or John, so John 21 is likely not making a reference to the disciples fishing for Gentiles.
I like the explanation from Jeremiah '...gathering of the waters...'. It's a gathering of strength from the LORD, just as the waters gather strength. ONLY GOD is in control of the waters (and the wind too) and it can be very overpowering at times depending on the circumstances. Thus hope is being strengthened by the LORD that what HE says (HIS WORD), HE will do-it WILL COME to pass. I am on the right path or did I stray? Hi, Vida. You're certainly right that God's gathering of the waters is a reflection of God's strength, and that this act (and others) gives us the assurance we need to hope (i.e., trust) in God's promises.
This is my first entry, as I just bagan my studies with you. I’m very happy for the previlege. If I may, hope is certainty that God is the same yesterday, today and for ever. Revelations 1:8; “I am the Alpha and the Omega, says the Lord God, who is, and who was, and who is to come, the Almighty.” (Revelation 1:8)NIV. So then, the theological implication is parallel with the historical context with an additional expectation. He can be trusted to fulfill the future prophecies of the ”Davidic Covenant”. Hope is eternal. Thanks so much for the information. ?? Thanks for this great input, Carmen. And thank you for pursuing your studies with us.
If I may, hope is certainty that God is the same yesterday, today and for ever. Revelations 1:8; “I am the Alpha and the Omega, says the Lord God, who is, and who was, and who is to come, the Almighty.” (So then, the theological implication is parallel with the historical context. We can trust him to fulfill his promises.
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